Tribulation the Great of the Past 20 Centuries Getting Closer to First Rapture

[Churchwork]

Not true! Scripture plainly teaches that all believers are included in the translation. In (1 Cor. 15:51) Paul says that "we shall all be changed," and (1 Thes. 4:13-17) says those involved are the ones who are "in Christ" whether living or dead. Your position divides the body of Christ which God has gone to great lengths to create. The vital, organic union which exists between Christ and believers can't be broken. While your position would certainly encourage Christians to live holy lives it simply doesn't line up with the truths of Scripture dealing with salvation, the Church, resurrection, and the rewarding of believers.

In Christ,
Tracey

What's not true? That I said all believers are included in the translation? I did say all believers are included in the translation. We shall all be changed, but the timing of that change will not be the same in the consummation of this age of the last week. To say that the body of Christ is divided because of the timing of the rapture not being the same over the 7 year period is to accuse the body of Christ already since some have already died, the Lord is in heaven, there are still remain some on earth and some believers are yet to be born. Even Enoch and Elijah were raptured and some came out of their graves at Matt. 27:52.

In order to round out your theory you will also have to do away somehow with the condition God has stipulated to be received to the throne before the Tribulation. Thus, you have a great many problems to conteract the Word of God. So therein lies your problem in that the fruit you agrees is correct, but then you turn around and say it doesn't line up with the Word of God, but provide no evidence that supports your case. Either what you think is the Word is not or you are presently unable to substantiate your beliefs with proper reasoning by the Holy Spirit.

How valuable were Jesus's words when he said observe their fruit, and would Satan cast out his own demons? Would a believer following after the prophets teach something else?

[Churchwork]

Those who've died in Christ have yet to receive their glorified bodies. They'll receive them just prior to the living saints at the translation (1 Thes. 4:13-17). Regarding your assertion that God has stipulations for being received before the throne, I'm unaware of any that pertain to the Church other than the necessity of being placed into the Body by the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 12:13).

In Christ,
Tracey

Since Revelation 7:9 says before the throne, now you know the conditional rapture before the Tribulation is before the throne. I am not aware of anywhere in 1 Cor 12:13 where it says anything about the throne.

Some argue that according to I Thess. 4:15, the living “shall in no wise precede them who are fallen asleep” by saying the dead are resurrected at the seventh trumpet; and so timewise, rapture occurs after the Tribulation.

The rapture before the Tribulation would take place before the dead. But since this verse distinctly says “shall in no wise,” how then can rapture take place twice?

Let me say in reply that it is most precious and significant to find in both verse 15 and verse 17 the qualifying clauses “we that are alive, that are left”.

Now to be alive is obviously to be left on earth; why, then, is there this apparent unnecessary repetition?

Because it implies that there are people who though alive yet have already gone ahead (that is, raptured) and therefore are no longer left on earth.